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For a SISO (single input single output) LTI (linear time invariant) system, there is a well defined notion of dual representations of the system. This duality is delt with in this question. To briefly summarize, a rational transfer matrix $\mathbf{G}(s)$ for the system $\hat{\mathbf{y}}(s) = \mathbf{G}(s) \hat{\mathbf{u}}(s)$ can be represented by the system $$\frac{d \mathbf{x}}{dt} = \mathbf{A}\mathbf{x} + \mathbf{B} \mathbf{u} \qquad \mathbf{y} = \mathbf{C}\mathbf{x}+\mathbf{D}\mathbf{u}$$ when $\mathbf{G}(s) = \mathbf{C}(s\mathbf{I}-\mathbf{A})^{-1}\mathbf{B} + \mathbf{D}$; here I use a hat to denote Laplace transform. For a SISO system, $\mathbf{u}$, $\mathbf{y}$, and $\mathbf{G}$ are scalars, and thus the transfer function $\mathbf{G}$ is equal to its transpose, $$\mathbf{G}(s) = \mathbf{G}(s)^T = \mathbf{B}^T(s\mathbf{I}-\mathbf{A}^T)^{-1}\mathbf{C}^T + \mathbf{D}^T$$ and thus the systems $(\mathbf{A},\mathbf{B},\mathbf{C},\mathbf{D})$ and $(\mathbf{A}^T,\mathbf{C}^T,\mathbf{B}^T,\mathbf{D}^T)$ are representations of the same transfer function, and the latter is termed the dual of the former.

For a MIMO (multi input multi output) system, the transfer matrix is not necessarily equal to its transpose, and thus the dual of a system, while it can be defined, is fundamentally a different system.

What is the connection between a system and its dual for the MIMO case?

I appreciate that taking the dual of the system swaps the controllability and observability properties, and that is why it is used. However, I have no intuitive understanding of what this mathematical trick is doing. I would expect the dual to be related to an inner product: the transpose is the adjoint operator for a matrix and thus $\langle \hat{\mathbf{w}},\mathbf{G} \hat{\mathbf{u}} \rangle = \langle \bar{\mathbf{G}}^T\hat{\mathbf{w}}, \hat{\mathbf{u}} \rangle$ for any $\hat{\mathbf{w}}(s)$. I can't seem to use this to construct the dual system, nor use it to motivate a connection between the controllability and observability of the resulting systems.

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  • $\begingroup$ I don't remember the mathematics behind of it anymore, but the concept of duality was introduced by Kalman in 1960 for the mimo case (see papers "Contributions to the theory of optimal control" and "On the general theory of control systems" in scholar.google.com/…) $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 4 at 13:59

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I am not sure to understand your question but I will start with writing this and I will update the answer based on comments.

First of all, the term "dual" used to talk about duality between controllability and observability is a bit misleading because it does not correspond, per se, to duality in the sense of an inner-product, even if there are connections between the two. From now on, I will refer to the system $\Sigma^T:=(A^T,C^T,B^T,D^T)$ to be the transposed system associated with $\Sigma:=(A,B,C,D)$. The transfer function, $G$, of $\Sigma$ is given by $G(s)=C(sI-A)^{-1}B+D$. Therefore, the transfer function of $\Sigma^T$ is just $G(s)^T=B^T(sI-A^T)^{-1}C^T+D^T$

Now, assume for simplicity that the system is stable, i.e. $A$ is Hurwitz stable, then the system $\Sigma$ maps real $L_2$ signals to real $L_2$ signals, and real $L_1$ signals to real $L_1$ signals.

As a result, we can look at the quantity $$ \langle z,\Sigma w\rangle:=\int_0^\infty z(s)^T\Sigma[w](s)ds. $$ Assuming that the signals are in both $L_1$ and $L_2$, we can use Plancherel theorem to obtain $$ \int_0^\infty z(s)^T\Sigma[w](s)ds=\int_{-\infty}^\infty \widehat{z}(j\omega)^*G(j\omega)\widehat{w}(j\omega)d\omega $$ Hence, $$ \int_0^\infty z(s)^T\Sigma[w](s)ds=\int_{-\infty}^\infty (G(j\omega)\widehat{z}(j\omega))^*\widehat{w}(j\omega)d\omega $$ and we get that $$ \int_0^\infty z(s)^T\Sigma[w](s)ds=\int_0^\infty \Sigma_d[z](s)^Tw(s)ds $$ where $\Sigma_d$ is the dual system of $\Sigma$ in the sense of this inner-product and the transfer function associated with this operator is $$ \begin{array}{rcl} G(j\omega)^*&=&B^*(j\omega I-A)^{-*}C^*+D^*\\ &=&B^T(-j\omega I-A^T)^{-1}C^T+D^T\\ &=&-B^T(j\omega I+A^T)^{-1}C^T+D^T \end{array} $$ which indicates that a state-space representation for $\Sigma_d$ is given by $(-A^T,-C^T, B^T,D^T)$.

We can make the following remarks:

  • First, observe the negative sign, which was not present in the transposed system.
  • Second, observe that if $\Sigma$ is stable, then $\Sigma_d$ is anti-stable (all the eigenvalues have positive real-part).
  • Third, observe that $\Sigma$ controllable/observable if and only if $\Sigma_d$ observable/controllable (this comes from Kalman's conditions). So, we recover the standard results of the literature on the topic.

Define now the possible state-space representation for $\Sigma_d$ $$ \begin{array}{rcl} \dot{\tilde{x}}(t)&=&-A^T\tilde{x}(t)-C^T\tilde{w}(t)\\ \tilde{z}(t)&=&B^T\tilde{x}(t)+D^T\tilde{w}(t) \end{array} $$ and consider the change of variables for the time $t=-\tau$, and let $\bar{x}(\tau)=\tilde{x}(-t)$, $\bar{z}(\tau)=\tilde{z}(-t)$, and $\bar{w}(\tau)=\tilde{w}(-t)$. Then, $$ \begin{array}{rcl} \dot{\bar{x}}(\tau)&=&A^T\bar{x}(\tau)+C^T\bar{w}(\tau)\\ \bar{z}(\tau)&=&B^T\bar{x}(\tau)+D^T\bar{w}(\tau). \end{array} $$

Therefore, this shows that the transposed system is the dual system with time reversed.


What I have done is only valid for LTI system but the dual system for an LTV system $(A(t),B(t),C(t),D(t))$ would just be $$ \begin{array}{rcl} \dot{\tilde{x}}(t)&=&-A(t)^T\tilde{x}(t)-C(t)^T\tilde{w}(t)\\ \tilde{z}(t)&=&B(t)^T\tilde{x}(t)+D(t)^T\tilde{w}(t) \end{array} $$ but the time-reversal trick is not possible in this case.


Ok, I stop there and I will update based on comments and feedback.

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  • $\begingroup$ Excellent, thanks so much! I'm surprised my textbook didn't go through this. Just to check, in the 1st, 2nd, 4th, 6th, and 7th integrals, should the functions be evaluated at time (t) and integrated with respect to time (d t)? And should the 3rd and 5th integrals be with respect to frequency (d omega)? $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 8 at 14:49
  • $\begingroup$ I have fixed the typos. I just used $s$ as integration variable. In the end, it does not matter. And the reason why some textbooks do not cover this is that it goes beyond what most textbooks want to include as there are quite some technicalities involved. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 8 at 16:46

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