I am looking at a circuit of my 'own' design:

simulate this circuit – Schematic created using CircuitLab
Assuming that R1C1>>1/fsw1 we get:
When the switch is open:
\$ I_{r1} = I_{c1}\rightarrow \frac{V_{in}}{R_{1}}=-C_{1}V_{o}/(1-D)T \$
and when the switch is closed:
\$ I_{c1}=C_{1}V_{o}/DT\$
so we get that \$ V_{in}/R_{1} = C_{1}V_{o}/DT \rightarrow V_{o}/V_{in} = DT/R_{1}C_{1}\rightarrow \frac{V_{o}}{V_{in}} = \frac{D}{R_{1}C_{1}f_{sw}}\$
and because fsw>>R1C1 that means the equation becomes:\$ \frac{V_{o}}{V_{in}} = \frac{D}{f_{sw}} \$ so isnt this a direct frequency to DC voltage converter(or the reverse of a voltage controlled oscillator) or am I wrong?
Edit:
The voltage in the output may be DC but it will vary how do I calculate the ripple of Vout?
And how do I select a opamp for this type of application.What bandwidth should my opamp have?