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I’m analyzing BJT transistor data and trying to calculate the Early voltage \$V_A\$ using two methods:

  1. Plotting \$I_C\$ vs. \$V_{CE}\$ with \$I_B\$ held constant.
  2. Plotting \$I_C\$ vs. \$V_{CE}\$ with \$V_{BE}\$ held constant.

I performed experiments in the lab to analyze these cases and attached the images of the plots for both methods: enter image description here enter image description here

I’m observing different values for the Early voltage \$V_A\$ in these two cases, which is confusing. When using \$V_{BE}\$ as the constant parameter, I notice a deviation from the linear behavior, especially at higher voltages, making it difficult to accurately measure \$V_A\$.

In contrast, when \$I_B\$ is held constant, extrapolation of all the curves seems to converge to the same point, providing a more consistent estimation of \$V_A\$.

I’d appreciate any additional insights or explanations, especially if someone has encountered a similar situation in their work.

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  • \$\begingroup\$ Yes - I agree. I have observed the same effect. However, this is no surprise because the slope of the corresponding characteristics Ic=f(Vce) differs in both cases. Hence, it is a mater of definition if we consider Ib or Vbe to be constant. \$\endgroup\$ Commented Dec 26, 2024 at 10:32

2 Answers 2

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Most of the techniques for measuring \$V_{_\text{A}}\$ become relatively inaccurate as \$V_{_\text{A}}\to\infty\$. But this isn't a problem because the effect of basewidth modulation (\$V_{_\text{A}}\$) becomes far less important as \$V_{_\text{A}}\to\infty\$.

For practical values of \$V_{_\text{A}}\$ a better method is to hold \$V_{_\text{BE}}\$ constant and set \$V_{_\text{BC}}\$ to two different values and measure the collector current for each. One of the measurement points should be made with \$V_{_\text{BC}}\approx 0\:\text{V}\$ (near). The other can be made with \$\vert V_{_\text{BC}}\vert \approx 1\:\text{V}\$, for example.

Also, \$V_{_\text{BE}}\$ should be kept small enough that the collector currents are as low as practical in order to mitigate the effects of the bulk resistances in the emitter, base, and collector.

In such a case, only two measurement points are needed and the resulting value is readily computed as:

$$V_{_\text{A}}=\frac{V_{_{\text{BC}_2}}\cdot I_{_{\text{C}_1}}-V_{_{\text{BC}_1}}\cdot I_{_{\text{C}_2}}}{I_{_{\text{C}_2}}-I_{_{\text{C}_1}}}$$

For example:

enter image description here

One might then compute:

$$V_{_\text{A}}=\frac{1\:\text{V}\cdot 118.53245\:\mu\text{A}-0\:\text{V}\cdot 119.71668\:\mu\text{A}}{119.71668\:\mu\text{A}-118.53245\:\mu\text{A}}\approx 100.09$$

And that is correct for the LTspice simulation model of the 2N2222.

The above technique assumes that basewidth modulation, that part due to variation in the width of the emitter-base space charge layer, is negligible (the so-called Late Effect.) This is a valid approach. But if curious to test the idea, then just repeat the above but at two different \$V_{_\text{BE}}\$ constant values, instead. If it changes much then there is a significant Late Effect and the Gummel-Poon model should be used.

Hopefully, this suggests a simple procedure you can try out. Best wishes.

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  • \$\begingroup\$ @ periblepsis - I have two questions: (1) Why do you say "One of the measurement points should be made with VBC≈0V" ? (2) For Vbc=1 volt the B-C junction of the npn transistor is open. Is that what you want? Why? \$\endgroup\$ Commented Dec 27, 2024 at 12:47
  • \$\begingroup\$ @LvW Because of how VA is defined. The Early Voltage in the literature defines it based on one of the points being at Vbc=0 V. That's the only reason why. If you have a good reason to use a different pair of points (you know something about how you will be operating the circuit for example and want to use that knowledge during some design step) then feel free. But it's no longer the same as what's in the literature defining the term. At least, as I understand it. You can read Ian Getreu's Modeling the Bipolar Transistor, pages 182 to 187, plus his referenced papers for more details. \$\endgroup\$ Commented Dec 27, 2024 at 12:56
  • \$\begingroup\$ @LvW As for the next choice where Vbc=1 V, I just made that arbitrarily for convenience. A smaller value would be closer to the literature definition, I suppose. So that choice of Vbc=1 V is entirely on me and you can blame me for that. I was just trying to keep things simple to write out. My fault there. In any case, when writing my answer, I made certain to refresh my memory before writing, by reading some of the literature on the topic, including Ian's book. The suggestion about how to check on the Late Effect comes from Ian's book in the pages I cited in a comment above. \$\endgroup\$ Commented Dec 27, 2024 at 12:58
  • \$\begingroup\$ @LvW I'm glad you wrote and asked me to justify my choices in writing. These kinds of challenges improve the quality of what's here to read and I think it is a very good thing that you applied your own thoughts and asked. I also try very hard to make sure that I avoid "shooting from the hip" and that I question my own understanding and check references to freshen my memory before writing. I hate being the source of bad information and feel terrible about it when it happens that I mislead others when writing here. \$\endgroup\$ Commented Dec 27, 2024 at 13:05
  • \$\begingroup\$ @ periblepsis - For my opinion, you did not answer my second question. For Vbc=1V the BJT is in saturation (B-C- junction forward biased). But I think, that VA is defined when the BJT is in the "linear" amplification region. More that that, I have problems to justify the equation you have used for Va. Please, can you explain? \$\endgroup\$ Commented Dec 27, 2024 at 13:17
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(see the update at the end.)

The slope of the Ic=f(Vce) curves at a certain fixed operational point (Ic,o, Vce,o) within the active region can be expressed using small-signal parameters (h21=hfe, h11=hie):

  • hybrid parameters: For Ib=const the slope is dI/dV=h22
  • y-parameters: For Vbe=const the slope is dI/dV=y22.

The relationship between both parameters can be found elsewhere:

y22=h22-h12 * h21/h11=h22-h12 * gm=h22-h12 * Ic,o/Vt

Hence, the slopes of both curves (Ib=const resp. Vbe=const) are not identical, unless the last term can be neglected. Is it allowed to neglect it?

Example (typical values at Ic,o=1.3mA)):

h22=25µS, h12=260E-6; and

y22=25µS-260E-6 *1.3mA/26mV=25µS-13µS

This example shows that - from the beginning - both slopes cannot be considered as equal (or nearly equal). Hence, the Early voltages derived from both slopes cannot be identical. Therefore, the question still is: Which set of curves must be used for finding the „correct“ Early voltage?

My present understanding is as folllows: We can define two DIFFERENT Early voltages VEA - depending on the used set of output characteristics (IB=const or VBE=const.). Both must be different because the conductance parameters h22 and y22, respectively, are different.

In this context, it is woth mentioning that papers from Berkeley Univ. are defining VEA for IB=const. and papers from Stanford Univ. are defining VEA for VBE=const.

Surprisingly, both are using the same approximation for the transistors dynamic output resistance ro~VEA/IC. (Although they have different definitions for VEA).

Lecture notes from the Columbia Univ. define VEA also for VBE=const. Even more confusing is a contribution from the Georgia Inst. of Tech.. Here, the Early voltage VEA is definde for IB=const. . However, in the same paper this parameter is used in the equation y22=IC/(VEA+VCE).

As we know: y22 is the output conductance for VBE=const.

Can somebody explain these contradictions?

EDIT: Discovered just now: In another lecture note from Berkeley Univ. VBE is held constant. Now we have two different definitions from the same source.

EDIT/UPDATE

The Early voltage VEA appears as a correcting factor (1+Vce/VEA) in Shockleys equation for the B-E junction Ic=f(Vbe). Therefore, it seems to be logical to define this parameter VEA for the alternative with Vbe=const. only.

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